of a translation of the Holy Scriptures
There are a great many elements
that determine the soundness and value of a translation of the Holy Scriptures.
In the article on "Archaeology and the Bible" in this issue, there is
discussion of the very major task of comparing thousands of ancient manuscripts
of the Old and New Testament in an attempt to arrive as certainly as possible
at the original writings that God has given to His people.
But even if we had the exact
original Hebrew Old Testament and Greek New Testament texts, there could still
be rather wide variation among the translations from the Hebrew and the Greek
into English. Some existing translations have been designed to be
ultra-literal, even to the extent of following the exact word order of the
Hebrew and Greek, which, in general, is quite different from word order in
English sentences. At the other extreme, there are versions that are more like
paraphrases than true translations, devoted to making each passage
understandable, even at the expense of sometimes misrepresenting the original
text. What is needed, of course, is a translation that is accurate and faithful
to the original text without losing too much in the way of readability.
In this article I wish to focus
on one small area that has become a concern to me in my personal study of the
Scriptures. For the most part I use the King James Version (KJV) because I grew
up with it and am most familiar with it. However, one of the stated goals of
the King James translators was not to be bound to translate the same Greek or
Hebrew word by the same English word in a particular passage, even when the
sense of the word was precisely the same throughout the passage. This is how
many of us were taught to write in High School English class—try not to use the
same word twice in a paragraph. This principle may make for more beautiful
literature, but when used in translations of the Bible, it may hinder the
proper communication of God’s mind to His people.
Ironically, the KJV too often
fails in an opposite way as well, namely, translating two different Greek or
Hebrew words in the same passage with the same English word, thus blurring a
distinction intended by the Holy Spirit.
Let us consider a few
illustrations. In 1 Corinthians 13:8-11 we read in the KJV:"Charity never
fails; but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be
tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away….
When that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done
away…. When I became a man, I put away childish things." In this passage
we find four words or phrases—fail, vanish away, done away, and put away—which
are all translations of the same Greek word, katargeo, meaning"to become
unemployed, rendered of no effect, or reduced to no activity." Prophecy
(that is, speaking on behalf of God) will one day, when we are with the Lord in
heaven, give way to hearing the Lord speak to us directly. Similarly, the
receiving and imparting of knowledge on our parts will be superseded by our
learning at the feet of the Fountain of all knowledge. While we may feel that
we have attained a great measure of knowledge and wisdom and understanding of
God and His Word, verses 10 and 11 seem to be telling us that our knowledge and
understanding will suddenly explode and mature to such a degree in that future,
eternal day that what we have learned here on earth will pale in comparison.
It’s humbling, isn’t it! As another has put it, "We chatter about a
‘knowledge explosion’ in this century; it is raw stupidity compared with the
divine enlightenment that awaits us" (Wilbur E. Nelson in Believe and
Behave).
Another point in this passage
comes into clearer focus when we know the correct translation of katargeo. In
verse 8 it says, "Whether there be tongues, they shall cease," rather
than give way to something far better as in the case of prophecy and knowledge.
This is emphasized in verse 9:"We know in part, and we prophesy in
part"; note that it does not say, "We speak in tongues in part."
In other words, there is no indication that in heaven there will be a fuller,
richer, more complete, more ecstatic speaking in tongues. (Chapter 14 builds on
this.)
In verse 8 of this passage we
also have an example of the opposite problem:"Charity never fails (Greek,
ekpipto); but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail (katargeo)."
Here the KJV fails to distinguish between two different Greek words, both
translated "fail," but having somewhat different meanings.
How do other translations handle
this passage? The New King James Version (NKJV) uses the same words as the KJV
in this passage. The New International Version (NIV) has "fail" for
ekpipto and "cease," "pass away," "disappear,"
and "put behind" for katargeo. Today’s English Version (TE V) has
"Love is eternal" in verse 8, and "temporary,"
"pass," "disappear," and "no more use" for
katargeo. However, both the J. N. Darby New Translation (JND) and the New
American Standard Bible (NASB) properly have "fail" for ekpipto and "done
away" or "did away" for the four occurrences of katargeo.
Turn now to John 21:15-17:
"So when they had dined, Jesus saith to Simon Peter, Simon, son of Jonas,
lovest thou Me more than these? He saith unto Him, Yea, Lord; Thou knowest that
I love Thee…. He saith to him again the second time, Simon, son of Jonas,
lovest thou Me? He saith unto Him, Yea, Lord; Thou knowest that I love Thee….
He saith unto Him the third time,
Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou Me? Peter was grieved because He said unto him
the third time, Lovest thou Me? And he said unto Him, Lord Thou knowest all
things; Thou knowest that I love Thee" (KJV).
From the KJV one would never
guess that the Lord Jesus uses two different Greek words for "love"
in this passage. In His first question to Peter He asks, "Do you have
agape love for me more than the other disciples?" He obviously is
challenging Peter’s bold assertion, "Though all men shall be offended
because of Thee, yet will I never be offended" (Matt. 26:33). Peter,
acutely aware of his three-fold denial of Christ, dares not claim that he
manifested that self-sacrificing agape love; so he responds cautiously,
"You know that I have philia love (that is, the affection that is found
between friends) for You."
The second time, the Lord Jesus
simply asks Peter, "Do you have agape love for me?" In other words,
"Not just in comparison with the other disciples, but do you have any
agape love at all for Me, Peter?" Once again Peter affirms his philia love
for Christ.
The third time Jesus takes up the
word Peter used:"Do you have philia love for Me?" This is what
struck deep in Peter’s heart and conscience. Jesus seems to be asking,
"Given all of the affection I have shown to you, all of the ways I have
helped you and befriended you, have you shown yourself to be a friend to Me in
My hour of deepest need?" Peter responds humbly, "You know all
things; You know my heart; even though I failed You miserably, You know that I
have affection for You."
Do you see how the spiritual
beauty of this passage is tremendously enhanced when the two different Greek
words are distinguished in the text? Now how do the other translations handle
this passage? The NASB, NIV, NKJV, and TEV all follow the KJV in translating
both of the Greek words "love." JND, however, properly makes the
distinction, even though his translation is rather awkward:"Yea, Lord;
Thou knowest that I am attached to Thee."
Another example is found in John
16:19-30. Seven times in this passage (verses 19,23,23,24,24, 26,30) the word
"ask" is found in the KJV. However, once again there are two Greek
words involved. The word aiteo suggests the petition of one who is lesser in
position than the one petitioned (for example, men asking of God); the word
erotao suggests the case where the petitioner is on a footing of equality or
familiarity with the one petitioned). Where it is a matter of the disciples
petitioning the Lord with whom they had lived and walked for three years
(verses 19, 23—first occurrence, and 30), the word is erotao. Where it is the
disciples petitioning the Father (verses 23—second occurrence, 24—both
occurrences, and 26), the word is aiteo. The word erotao occurs yet once more
in this passage, with reference to God the Son petitioning His Father:"I
will pray the Father for you" (verse 26).
How do the other translations
handle this passage? The NIV and TEV have "ask" all eight times. The
NKJV follows the KJV except for the word "question" instead of
"ask" in verse 30. The NASB does quite well in making the
distinction, translating aiteo "ask" all four times and erotao
"question" three times and "request" once. The JND properly
makes the distinction by consistently having "ask" for aiteo and
"demand" for erotao.
Let us now consider an example in
1 Corinthians 12:8-10:’To one is given by the Spirit the word of wisdom; to
another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit; to another faith by the same
Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit; to another the
working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to
another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues"
(KJV). Eight times we find the word "another" in this passage, but
six times the Greek word is alks denoting "another of the same sort,"
and two times it is heteros denoting "another of a different sort."
Heteros is found in verse 9 ("to another faith") and verse 10
("to another divers kinds of tongues"). Thus, the Holy Spirit seems
to have divided these spiritual gifts into three classes:(1) word of wisdom
and word of knowledge; (2) faith, healing, miracles, prophecy, and discerning
of spirits; and (3) tongues and interpretation. (Perhaps the gifts of prophecy,
tongues, and knowledge referred to in 1 Corinthians 13:8 are intended as examples
from these three classes.)
So once again the KJV fails to
make a distinction that the Holy Spirit has made in the original Greek text Do
the other translations do better? The NASB, NIV, and NKJV follow the KJV in
using "another" all the way through. The TEV is a little different
but still fails to make the appropriate distinctions. Only the JND
appropriately reads "to a different one faith" and "to a
different one kinds of tongues."
In John 14:16 we read of the
Father giving us "another Comforter," and in 1 John 2:1 we have
"an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous" (KJV).
Among the translations we have been considering, only the JND tells us that
"Comforter" and "Advocate" are the same word (parakletos)
in the Greek. The JND translation is "Comforter" in John 14 and
"Patron" in 1 John 2, but there is a footnote in each place that
makes the connection between the two. This word parakletos literally refers to
a person who is called to one’s side to give aid, such as an attorney. The Lord
Jesus was such a Person to His disciples (and still is that to us with respect
to our relationship with God). When He was getting ready to go back to heaven.
He promised His disciples "another Comforter" or Helper, that is, the
Holy Spirit.
Even the inattentive reader can
see where this is heading. For one seeking a good study Bible that
accurately and faithfully
translates the original Hebrew and Greek texts into English, the JND
translation is to be recommended over the others that have been mentioned.
True, the JND is not generally as easy to read as the others, but for purposes
of in-depth study of the Scriptures, digging out the jewels that God has
provided for us in His Word, it is quite valuable.
The JND is not perfect by any
means. For example, this translation, along with the KJV and TEV, fails to make
the connection between the meaning of Barnabas’s name—"son of
consolation" (Acts 4:36)—and his ministry of exhortation (Acts 11:23). The
Greek word in both cases is related to parakletos, the word elsewhere
translated "Comforter" and "Advocate" as discussed above.
The NASB, NIV, and NKJV appropriately read "son of encouragement" in
Acts 4:36 and "Barnabas… encouraged them all" (Acts 11:22,23).
For those interested in serious,
in-depth study of the Scriptures, there is something even better than the JND
translation. I am referring to the Hebrew and Greek texts themselves. These are
available with interlineal (between-the-lines) English translation to help
those like myself who are not well versed in these languages. To our readers
who may be in college I would give the strongest encouragement to try to fit in
at least introductory courses in classical and New Testament Greek and Old
Testament Hebrew. It will be hard work, but most rewarding if you desire to be
a serious student of the Bible. If you have no plans for college or college is
long a thing of the past, you might consider taking correspondence courses in
these subjects. And for those of you who are home-schooling your children, I
was delighted to learn recently that at least one Christian home-schooling
course includes New Testament Greek as the foreign language. Good for them!
If you are not up to learning
Greek and Hebrew at this stage of life, you might consider a study Bible whose
words are keyed to concordances such as Strong’s or Wigram’s which are
organized by the Greek and Hebrew words as well as the English ones. Also, W.
E. Vine’s Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words is most useful.
May the Lord encourage each one
of us to study His Word more diligently.