Question:
First John 5:18 says: “We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not.” Since this is true, how is it also true that “If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us” (1 John 1:8)?

Answer:
There are two schools of thoughts regarding 1 John 5:18. (1) John is speaking of what will CHARACTERIZE the one who is born of God. Such a one will not HABITUALLY sin. (2) John is speaking of the child of God as if he only had the new nature, and thus he could not sin.

I have wrestled with these two views over the years and it was only recently that I formed a firm opinion. First John 3:9 helped me in coming to a conclusion. In this verse we read: “Whosoever is born of God does not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.”
John is quite emphatic when he states of the child of God, “HE CANNOT SIN.” This, in my mind, rules out the first view given, for if the child of God does not HABITUALLY sin, there is still the possibility that HE CAN SIN. But I believe John is looking at the child of God in these verses in a very absolute way, as one who has the very nature of God (“HIS SEED REMAINETH IN HIM” is speaking, I believe of the divine nature), which cannot sin. He is not, in these verses (3:9; 5:18), considering the fact that the child of God also has an old nature which can do nothing but sin. Thus he is not writing of what may be the actual experience of the child of God. This he does elsewhere, as in 1 John 2:1: “My little children, these things write I unto you, THAT YE SIN NOT. AND IF ANY MAN SIN, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous.” In this verse John is speaking of what may be the experience of the child of God and thus he is considering the fact that, because of the sinful nature being retained by the child of God, he may indeed commit a sin. We must learn, when reading this epistle, to discern what he is speaking in the absolute sense, or when he is speaking of what may occur in one’s experience.

Question:
Does the devil hear your silent prayers, and know what you are praying for? Can he read your mind?

Answer:
I know of no Scripture which would lead us to believe that the devil can read our minds (which would include hearing our silent prayers.) Only God has such knowledge, as is evident from the following Scriptures: “O LORD, thou hast searched me, and known me. Thou knowest my downsitting and mine uprising, THOU UNDERSTANDEST MY THOUGHT AFAR OFF . . .  Search me, O God, and know my heart: try me, AND KNOW MY THOUGHTS” (Psalm 139:1, 2, 23).

The devil does have the power to put thoughts into one’s mind, for we read in John 13:2, “And supper being ended, THE DEVIL HAVING NOW PUT INTO THE HEART OF JUDAS ISCARIOT, SIMON’S SON, TO BETRAY HIM” (see also Acts 5:3), but thank God he is, as far as I know, unable to discern the thoughts that we have when not under his influence.

Question:
Did Lazarus die the second time after having died and being risen from the dead by Christ, since Hebrews 9:27 says: “It is appointed unto men once to die?”

Answer:
For the believer, death is to be absent from the body and present with the Lord. He is “asleep” (1 Thessalonians 4:13). This is also what Jesus said of Lazarus: “Our friend Lazarus sleepeth; but I go, that I may awake him out of sleep” (John 11:11). So we might ask the question this way: “Did Lazarus sleep twice?” The raising of Lazarus was to bring glory to God. After he was raised, Lazarus continued to live in Bethany, ate with the Lord, and was visited by many of the Jews. He appears to be just as he was before his sickness. It would seem, then, that Lazarus lived out the rest of his life and ultimately slept again. But since we are not told, this is only a conjecture.

From the original question, the first part of Hebrews 9:27 might seem to be a contradiction. But this verse applies generally to men, and it does not limit God. We know, for example, that Enoch did not see death even once. Also, looking at the second part of the verse, we see that after death there is the judgment. But the next verse shows that God has intervened: “So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for Him shall He appear the second time without sin unto salvation.” For the believer, the sin question has been settled, and he looks for Christ and salvation, rather than death and judgment.

Question:
“And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh” (Joel 2:28 and Acts 2:17). Does this mean that non-Christians can have the Spirit?

Answer:
There is a key word in Joel’s prophecy which will help us to answer the above question. That word is “afterward.” Joel said, “It shall come to pass AFTERWARD.” After what? The answer to that lies in the first 27 verses of the chapter. Space forbids going over each verse, but allow me to give a brief summary. In verses 1-11 Joel gives a graphic description of “the day of the Lord.” Almost every O.T. prophet alludes to this time and in each case it is characterized by judgment. We see in Joel that God will use a great army (vs. 2, 5, 11) to execute judgment upon His people for their wickedness. In verses 12-17 we see Jehovah appealing to His people to humble themselves and to return unto Him. Then in verses 18-27 we see Jehovah, in response to His people’s cry for mercy, removing the army from them and blessing them materially with rain and plenty of food. It is at this point that Joel says, “It shall come to pass AFTERWARD (after the fulfillment of verses 1-27), that I will pour out My spirit upon all flesh.”

Two points must be stressed concerning this prophecy and they will both help us to understand who it is that receives the outpouring of the Spirit. (1) Joel’s prophecy relates to God’s earthly people, Israel (see vs. 1, 15-19 ,23, 26, 27), not to Christians. (2) Joel’s prophecy is yet future, for it involves Israel’s restoration to their land in unbelief, a great invasion from a northern army, and Jehovah’s intervention on their behalf which will result in untold blessings being bestowed upon them. This prophecy has nothing to do with the present dispensation where God is uniting Jews and Gentiles into one body (the Church) and fitting them for heaven.
Thus the outpouring of the Spirit (in Joel’s prophecy) has to do with a future day when Israel will once again be the object of God’s purposes. After the rapture of the church to heaven, God will cause His earthly people Israel to pass through a time of great tribulation (see Jeremiah 30:7; Daniel 12:1; Matthew 24:21) which will result in a remnant turning to Him in true repentance and faith. When the northern army (that Joel speaks of) invades the land, this remnant will cry out to the Lord and the Lord will then return to the earth in power and glory to save them from their enemies. After the destruction of their enemies, God will bless Israel in two ways: (1) Materially (Joel 2:21-26); and (2) Spiritually (2:28, 29). The pouring out of the Spirit is primarily upon the people in Israel (see Isaiah 32:15; 44:1-3; Ezekiel 36:27, 28; 37:14; 39:29), though it may include Gentiles who are to be blessed along with Israel in the Millennial reign of Christ.One more question remains. Why does Peter, on the day of Pentecost, quote from Joel’s prophecy, giving it some application to what took place on that day, when the Spirit was given to believers and they spoke in tongues? Before Peter actually quotes from Joel, he says, “But THIS is THAT which was spoken by the prophet Joel.” He did not say that it was a direct fulfillment of the events of Joel. When a prophecy was actually being fulfilled, the language is quite different from what we have here. (Such as: “That it might be fulfilled.” See Matthew 1:22; 2:15, 17; 8:17; 12:17; etc.) In saying, “THIS is THAT,” I believe Peter is simply calling attention to the fact that some things like THAT which took place on the day of Pentecost had been predicted by Joel. The same POWER of the Holy Spirit which was manifested in Peter’s day, will be manifested in the future when Israel is blessed at the Lord’s coming to the earth. Thus, what happened on the day of Pentecost was a SAMPLE of what Joel foretold, but it was not a literal fulfillment of it.

Question:
What is the gift of faith (1 Corinthians 12:9)? Is it the faith that saves, or is it the supernatural faith that moves mountains?

Answer:
The context in which this verse is found is teaching us how the Spirit of God distributes spiritual gifts to members of the body of Christ. They are already saved, thus they do not need “the faith that saves.” Also, it is clear that though every member of the body of Christ receives a gift (vs. 7, 11), not all receive the same gift (vs. 8-10), so that the faith mentioned here could not be “the faith that saves,” for the “faith” in question here is limited to certain individuals.

I believe it is, as you said, “the supernatural faith that moves mountains.” One has said, “the gift of faith is the divine ability to remove mountains of difficulty in pursuing the will of God” (1 Corinthians 13:2), and to do great exploits for God in response to some command or promise of God as found in His Word or as communicated privately. George Muller is a classic example of a man with the gift of faith. Without ever making his needs known to anyone but God, he cared for 10,000 orphans over a period of sixty years.