Q. 5.-In the new-born man, what is the difference between soul and spirit ?

A. If Hebrews 4:12 be referred to-"the Word of God piercing even to the dividing asunder between soul and spirit," the difference is this:The soul is lower than the spirit, the emotional, sensitive part, the link between the spirit and the body. The knowledge of the things of a man, the mental and moral judgment, are ascribed to it in Scripture. Man is a living soul, just as the animal is; and the "natural," or unconverted, man is, according to the meaning of the word, a soulic, (or, as we may better say in English,) an animal man. He is moved by sight and sense, and without God, as the beast is. To " divide," therefore, "between soul and spirit" is to distinguish between what is sensual or emotional merely and what is morally right or of God. The unconverted man has of course a spirit also, but being away from God, it has no proper knowledge of Him or of eternal things, and no rightful control over the lower nature.

Q. 6.-Will you explain the difference between Acts 9:7 and 20:9 ? In the one case, those who were with the apostle heard the voice, and in the other, they did not.

A. There is a difference in the Greek, which the English does not express. In 9:7, they heard "of the voice," literally; meaning that they heard it, but not what it said. In 20:9- "They heard not the voice of Him that spake to me,"-here, it is the accusative, the full-length voice, as we may say,-the utterance.

Q. 7.-Please explain Romans 8:16. In what way does the Spirit bear witness ? by the Word, or apart, or both ?

A. Not apart from the Word. It is the co-witness of the Spirit of God and our spirit that the passage affirms, raising inference to positive knowledge, direct consciousness.-"In that day, ye shall know that I am in the Father, and ye in Me, and I in you."

Q. 8.-How do you reconcile Moses speaking face to face with God as with a friend, the pure in heart shall see God, and other passages, with such as 1 Timothy 6:16 and " No man can see Me and live"?

A. As to the last, it is the characteristic of the legal dispensation, in contrast with the Christian; for he that hath seen Christ hath seen the Father. As to the passage in Timothy, it is God in His essential Being, necessarily beyond the gaze of finite creatures; yet this does not preclude such sight of God as is elsewhere expressly spoken of.-"They shall see His face," yea, "their angels in heaven do always behold the face of My Father which is in heaven." It would be a strange thing to be in the Father's house and never see the Father, while yet there will be inner glories, which no creature eye can see. In this sense, of the Son also it is written that "no man knoweth the Son, but the Father." After Moses had seen God face to face, the apostle could write that "no man hath seen God at any time," and then adds, "The only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him." We see and know Him now in Christ, as Moses did not. In this saying the apostle refers to the character of God, in Christ fully displayed.