BY JOHN BLOORE

(The reader should always turn to the Bible and read the passages referred to.)

QUES. 18.-We use the word "usury" in the sense of exorbitant or extortionate interest, but in the Scriptures it appears to mean the simple act of loaning money at interest; and the Revised Version substitutes "interest" for the term "usury," as used in the Authorized Version. The practice is condemned, as in Ps. 15:5 and Prov. 28:8; is it then wrong for a Christian to loan his money at interest ?

ANS.-The Standard Dictionary defines "usury" as, "Originally, the act or practice of loaning money at interest, or of taking interest for money so loaned:now archaic, except in the sense of exorbitant or extortionate interest, specifically (Law), the demanding and taking, or contracting to receive, for the use of money as a loan a rate of interest beyond what is allowed by law."

In the A. V. the word "usury" is used in the first or original sense, as just defined, therefore the R. V. better renders it "interest." It. seems clear from the passages in which this word is used that what is now called interest is meant, and that what is now usury would be involved in the added statement of Prov. 28:8, "unjust gain."

But it should be borne in mind that the provision of the Law, as given in Exodus 22:25 and Lev. 25:35-38, has the poor of Israel in view. Thus it is not a question of business transactions which we think of to-day as subject to lawful interest, but rather of not taking interest on what is loaned to supply the need of a poor brother. What is condemned is the taking of interest as part of a general course of oppression, extortion or dishonest gain. Compare Ezek. 18:8, 13,17; 22:12,13, 27.

Deut. 23:19, 20 seems to give a broader provision, since the poor are not mentioned; it appears to prohibit within the immediate circle of Israel a taking of interest in business transactions between Israelites, while allowing it in the case of the foreigner. This, by contrast, may emphasize what we have already stated, showing that interest was legitimate under certain circumstances, while severely condemned when practiced upon the poor, and not even permitted between those of the nation itself.

QUES. 19.-What is the right translation of 1 Cor. 15:51? There are certain differences found when several versions are compared.

ANS.-The New Translation (J. N. D.) gives:"I tell you a mystery:We shall not all fall asleep, but we shall all be changed." This without question is the correct rendering of the true text as given in several of the uncial MSS. Some, however, support the reading, "We shall all sleep, but shall not all be changed;" and yet another reading followed in the Latin Version, "We shall indeed all rise again, but we shall not all be changed." Two errors are found in both these forms which contradict the plain teaching of other scriptures, and so both are to be rejected. First, they deny the change which is to be effected for all of those who are Christ's at His coming. Compare Rom. 8:29; Phil. 3:20, 21; 1 Cor. 15:49. Secondly, the one asserts that all will die, which is not true, for those who are alive at the Lord's coming do not die, as we know; and the other asserts that all will rise again, which is equally untrue, for while those who have fallen asleep in Christ will surely rise, those who are alive and remain to the Lord's coming cannot be said to rise again, but they are indeed changed. This the following verse states(ver. 52).

These considerations make evident that the right translation is given in the A. V. and the New Translation, the only difference really being, "I shew you" in the former, and "I tell you" in the latter, but both are present tense, rendering λέγω which is first person singular present.