QUES. 13.-What is to be understood by the law in Rom. 2:12-15?-and how can the doers of the law be justified (ver. 13), in view of Rom. 3:9-12,19,28, and Gal. 3:10-12?

ANS.-It is the law given by Moses. It does not say, however, that any have fulfilled its demands, for it is not the hearers but the doers that it justifies. Verses 13-15 are parenthetic and explanatory of the principle. Verse 16 is the continuation from ver. 12.

But the obedience which the law demanded, but which it could not produce, is rendered by God's redeemed people-not as under the law, but in love's glad obedience to Christ; and that in the measure in which His love rules our heart. See Rom. 8:3-5 and 12:1.

QUES. 14.-Why was the Sabbath precept placed among the moral precepts in the decalogue? Paul classes it as an ordinance, with the feasts in Col. 2:14-17.

ANS.-It was the link between God and Israel as His redeemed people. In Egypt there was no Sabbath; but when brought out of their hard bondage, the Sabbath was given them as a continual reminder of that redemption. Looking upon a redeemed and obedient people God would rest in His love, and they with Him. It was soon broken. To us it is a type of that eternal rest which remaineth to the people of God. (See Heb. 4, and Gen. 2:2, 3.)

QUES. 15.-When did the priest wave the sheaf of first-fruits before the Lord? (Levit. 23:11.) Some expositors say it was the morrow after the Passover Sabbath, but is it not the weekly Sabbath that is meant?-for the Passover was a fixed date (Nisan 14), whereas the beginning of harvest would doubtless be a variable date.

ANS.-As Scripture does not define which Sabbath, it has no great importance. What is important is that its presentation before God was "on the morrow after the Sabbath"-that is, on the first day of the week. This sheaf culled from the field before harvest typifies our Lord's resurrection, "Firs-fruits of them that slept" (1 Cor. 15:20). The old week is past; God's dealing with sin is over, and "very early in the morning, the first day of the week" Christ is risen. A new era begins with His resurrection in which He associates those redeemed by His blood with Himself (John 20:17; Heb. 2:11,12). In the Aug. No. of last year's Help and Food, the article on "Jehovah's appointed Times," pp. 240-243, may interest you.

QUES. 16.-I have noticed that prayers in our meetings are usually concluded with the words, "In the name of Jesus." Should we petition our Father in the name of the Son only?

ANS._Our Lord has left us this promise:"Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If ye shall ask anything in my name, I will do it" (John 14:13,14). Not only does the Father associate His answers to our prayers with the delight He has in His Son, but He is justified in doing so only through the reconciliation wrought by the atoning death of His Son.

As it has often been pointed out, asking in Christ's name is not a mere putting His name at the end of one's prayer, but it is identifying ourselves in faith with Him in presenting our requests to God. Thus it is asking in accordance with His mind and character. (See 1 John 5:14,15.) Asking what is not in accord with His will and character is not asking "in His name."

I may add that prayer is often addressed to the Lord Himself. See Acts 7:59; 1 Cor. 1:2; 2 Cor. 12:8, etc. In general, as children of God we address the Father; as Christ's servants we address our Lord.