Question 4.-Will you please explain the difference between Gen. 10:31, "after their tongues," and Gen. 11:1, "The whole earth was of one language, and of one speech." J. B. F.

Answer.- Chapter 10:, giving the genealogies of the sons of Noah, goes beyond the time of the confusion of tongues at Babel, and so speaks not only of various tribes but of different languages. Chapter 11:gives the account of the origin of these various languages,- man exalting himself to make him a great name, is only brought to confusion. " Tongue," the word used in chapter 10:, is the ordinary one for language,- used now, as "foreign tongue." "Language," in chapter 11:, is literally "lip." The general thought is the same in both cases. If we are able to catch the shade of difference, it might be that "lip" suggests the outward form of the words, as we hear them; "tongue," the source of the language.

Question 5.- In Luke i, and Acts 1:was not Theophilus a Gentile, and was it not one and the same person to whom Luke addressed his two books? J. R. F.

Answer.-"The former treatise" shows clearly that the same person is addressed in Acts as in Luke. The Greek form of his name suggests that he was a Gentile, and the adjective "most excellent" that he was a person of position. Compare Acts 23:26; 24:3; 26:25. While there can be no question that he was a real person, not an imaginary one, the significance of his name, "the friend of God," is suggestive. "I have called you friends."

Question 6.- Please explain 1 Cor. especially last clause J. R. F.

Answer.-The proper rendering, "virginity," makes the meaning clear,-it being nearly synonymous with chastity. The latter part, "let him do what he will, he sinneth not," can only be explained by the last words, "let them marry." No other meaning is possible. Only a satanic perversion of words could suggest any other thought.