QUES. 12.-What is the king spoken of in Rev. 9:11? ans.-We believe it is the "Antichrist; " the one mentioned in 2 Thess. 2:8-10; who brings on the fulfilment of Matt. 24:15-22. His name, whose interpretation is destroyer, and given in both Hebrew and Greek, indicates his character and work, both toward the worship of the restored Jewish nation, and of apostate Gentile Christendom. It is the Christ of Satan against the Christ of God. The spirit of this is now abundantly at work, and deceiving many.

QUES. 13.-Does 1 Cor. 11:30 and 3:17 teach us that God takes those of us away who bring reproach upon the cause of Christ ?

ANS.-The first scripture you refer to does. But mark, it does not say that God does so in every case, for the very sinful brother of the fifth chapter was not taken away, but judged by the assembly, and thus brought to repentance and restoration. God knows each case fully and deals with each one in perfect wisdom, though we who know but in part, may not always be able to understand His ways.

The second scripture you refer to is quite different. It is the doom which awaits the destroyers of God's temple, which is now in process of building-of which Christ is the foundation, and every child of God a living stone. The servants of Christ who are good builders bring in what will abide, and for which they will receive their reward from the Lord at the end; other servants, who are bad builders, bring in what the Lord will have to consume at the end, and though they themselves will be saved, they will lose their rewards.

Those of the seventeenth verse are not builders at all, but destroyers, as for instance, "Christian Science," "Millennial Dawn-ism," "Higher Criticism," "Seventh-day Adventism" and many more which, while they profess to be builders, are in reality the defilers, or destroyers, of the temple of God.

QUES. 14-In Luke 22:17 the Lord took the cup. What does that refer to?

In verse 18 He says, "I will not drink of the fruit of the vine, until the Kingdom of God. shall come." What time does this refer to?

Then in vers. 19 and 20, is it the rule laid down by our Lord for us to go by at this present time?

ANS.-The cup in ver. 17 refers to the Passover cup-the symbol of what He was about to accomplish. The purpose for which the Lord had established it being fulfilled, He dismisses it with the honor and dignity due to it.

The time referred to by " the Kingdom of God," is the establishment of that order of things perfectly suited to God which would result from the Lord's death and resurrection-an order of things already existing now among those who are of faith, but which will be fully reached only in the age to come.

Yes, vers. 19 and 20, are our Lord's rule for us now until He comes. It is the new ordinance, which points back to the sufferings of Christ, of which all the present grace and the coming glories are the result-the foundation upon which the Kingdom of God is established. The wine of this kingdom the Lord has been drinking with us and we with Him since He rose from the dead; and if the Passover cup is empty and dismissed, we who drink of this new wine can say from our hearts, "Thou hast kept the good wine until now."

QUES. 15.-Reading Deut. 24:1, in connection with Matt. 5:32, why is she not allowed to marry again while in the former scripture she was?

Can we assume from these scriptures that a wife could set aside her husband in case of his committing adultery ? And would she be allowed to marry another man ? Would her divorced husband be allowed to marry again ?

ANS.-The answer to your first question is in Matt. 19:3-9. Ver. 8 gives the reason why Moses permitted divorce under such circumstances. Judaism was but a temporary order of things which "made nothing perfect"(Heb. 7:18, 19). It did not even abolish polygamy. It did not restore the order of God in creation which sin had corrupted. Christianity does; and so in Matt. 19:the Lord restores the true order in the marriage relation. There He affirms that henceforth, "Whosoever shall put away his wife, except for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery; and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery."Fornication is then the only thing which breaks the marriage tie, and permits divorce; aud none may shield themselves by what Moses only "suffered," after all, because of the hardness of the people's hearts.

We need not assume from these scriptures what is in the second question. Mark 10:12 shows that the woman puts away as well as the man. The right of each to put away the other in the case of fornication on either side is thus established.

As to the liberty to marry again, in the one who has been sinned against, Matt. 19:9 clearly implies it; whilst it declares it adultery for any one to marry the other.

One thing, however, must never be lost sight of by the people of God in such matters:Where the husband has sinned against the wife, or the wife against the husband, if there be repentance, forgiveness is the blessed remedy-not putting away. We who have been forgiven so much, find our blessing in forgiving what others do against us.